Boost Your SOTET-2025 Top 60 Possible Asked MCQs with Answers

60 Expected MCQs for (SOTET-2025 Paper II (Child Development and Pedagogy)

Section-1 60 Expected MCQs for (SOTET-2025 Paper II (Child Development and Pedagogy)

  1. According to Piaget, in which stage do children develop the ability to think logically about concrete events?
    • A) Sensorimotor
    • B) Preoperational
    • C) Concrete Operational
    • D) Formal Operational
    • Answer: C) Concrete Operational
  2. What is the age range for Piaget’s Formal Operational Stage?
    • A) 2-7 years
    • B) 7-11 years
    • C) 11 years and above
    • D) 0-2 years
    • Answer: C) 11 years and above
  3. Which of the following is a characteristic of Vygotsky’s Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)?
    • A) Tasks a child can do independently
    • B) Tasks a child can do with guidance
    • C) Tasks beyond a child’s capability
    • D) Tasks a child avoids
    • Answer: B) Tasks a child can do with guidance
  4. Kohlberg’s theory of moral development includes how many stages?
    • A) 3
    • B) 4
    • C) 5
    • D) 6
    • Answer: D) 6
  5. A child who obeys rules to avoid punishment is in which stage of Kohlberg’s moral development?
    • A) Pre-conventional (Stage 1)
    • B) Conventional (Stage 3)
    • C) Post-conventional (Stage 5)
    • D) Pre-conventional (Stage 2)
    • Answer: A) Pre-conventional (Stage 1)
  6. Which of the following best describes Erikson’s stage of ‘Industry vs. Inferiority’?
    • A) Developing trust in caregivers
    • B) Gaining competence through tasks
    • C) Forming intimate relationships
    • D) Reflecting on life achievements
    • Answer: B) Gaining competence through tasks
  7. What is the primary focus of development during adolescence, according to Erikson?
    • A) Trust vs. Mistrust
    • B) Identity vs. Role Confusion
    • C) Autonomy vs. Shame
    • D) Initiative vs. Guilt
    • Answer: B) Identity vs. Role Confusion
  8. Which factor most influences emotional development in children?
    • A) Peer interaction
    • B) Genetic predisposition
    • C) Parental attachment
    • D) Academic performance
    • Answer: C) Parental attachment
  9. The concept of ‘Scaffolding’ in education was introduced by:
    • A) Piaget
    • B) Vygotsky
    • C) Kohlberg
    • D) Erikson
    • Answer: B) Vygotsky
  10. Which of the following is a sign of social development in upper primary students?
    • A) Egocentrism
    • B) Parallel play
    • C) Cooperative play
    • D) Solitary play
    • Answer: C) Cooperative play

Section 2: Learning and Cognitive Processes SOTET

  1. Which learning theory emphasizes the role of reinforcement and punishment?
    • A) Cognitive Learning
    • B) Behaviorism
    • C) Constructivism
    • D) Humanism
    • Answer: B) Behaviorism
  2. According to Bloom’s Taxonomy, which level involves creating something new?
    • A) Analysis
    • B) Evaluation
    • C) Synthesis/Creation
    • D) Comprehension
    • Answer: C) Synthesis/Creation
  3. What is the main source of intrinsic motivation for students?
    • A) External rewards
    • B) Personal interest and satisfaction
    • C) Teacher’s praise
    • D) Competition with peers
    • Answer: B) Personal interest and satisfaction
  4. Which of the following is an example of operant conditioning?
    • A) A child learns by observing a peer
    • B) A child salivates at the sight of food
    • C) A child receives a reward for completing homework
    • D) A child memorizes a poem
    • Answer: C) A child receives a reward for completing homework
  5. The process of transferring learning from one context to another is called:
    • A) Assimilation
    • B) Accommodation
    • C) Generalization
    • D) Discrimination
    • Answer: C) Generalization
  6. What is the role of a teacher in a constructivist classroom?
    • A) Direct instructor
    • B) Facilitator of learning
    • C) Strict disciplinarian
    • D) Sole knowledge provider
    • Answer: B) Facilitator of learning
  7. Which of the following is NOT a component of Gardner’s Multiple Intelligences?
    • A) Linguistic
    • B) Spatial
    • C) Emotional
    • D) Interpersonal
    • Answer: C) Emotional
  8. A student who struggles to retain information may benefit from:
    • A) Rote memorization
    • B) Mnemonics and visual aids
    • C) Strict deadlines
    • D) Competitive tasks
    • Answer: B) Mnemonics and visual aids
  9. Metacognition refers to:
    • A) Learning through observation
    • B) Thinking about one’s own thinking
    • C) Memorizing facts
    • D) Physical development
    • Answer: B) Thinking about one’s own thinking
  10. Which teaching strategy best supports discovery learning?
    • A) Lecture method
    • B) Inquiry-based learning
    • C) Rote learning
    • D) Direct instruction
    • Answer: B) Inquiry-based learning

Section 3: Inclusive Education and Individual Differences SOTET

  1. Inclusive education primarily aims to:
    • A) Segregate students based on ability
    • B) Provide equal learning opportunities for all
    • C) Focus only on gifted students
    • D) Exclude students with disabilities
    • Answer: B) Provide equal learning opportunities for all
  2. Which of the following is a characteristic of a child with dyslexia?
    • A) Difficulty in reading and writing
    • B) Difficulty in hearing
    • C) Poor motor skills
    • D) Lack of social skills
    • Answer: A) Difficulty in reading and writing
  3. A teacher notices a student is withdrawn and avoids participation. This could indicate:
    • A) High self-esteem
    • B) Emotional disturbance
    • C) Advanced cognitive skills
    • D) Physical disability
    • Answer: B) Emotional disturbance
  4. What is the best approach for teaching a child with ADHD?
    • A) Long, uninterrupted tasks
    • B) Short, engaging activities
    • C) Strict punishment for distractions
    • D) Ignoring the child’s behavior
    • Answer: B) Short, engaging activities
  5. The term ‘Differentiated Instruction’ refers to:
    • A) Teaching all students the same way
    • B) Tailoring teaching to meet diverse needs
    • C) Focusing only on slow learners
    • D) Using only one teaching method
    • Answer: B) Tailoring teaching to meet diverse needs
  6. Which law in India mandates free and compulsory education for children aged 6-14?
    • A) Right to Education Act, 2009
    • B) Child Labour Act, 1986
    • C) Juvenile Justice Act, 2015
    • D) National Education Policy, 2020
    • Answer: A) Right to Education Act, 2009
  7. A child with visual impairment may benefit from:
    • A) Audio-based learning materials
    • B) Complex visual diagrams
    • C) Written assignments only
    • D) Group discussions only
    • Answer: A) Audio-based learning materials
  8. Which of the following best supports gifted students?
    • A) Repetitive tasks
    • B) Enrichment activities
    • C) Uniform pace of teaching
    • D) Ignoring their abilities
    • Answer: B) Enrichment activities
  9. What is a key feature of Universal Design for Learning (UDL)?
    • A) Single method of instruction
    • B) Multiple means of engagement and expression
    • C) Excluding students with disabilities
    • D) Focusing only on academic skills
    • Answer: B) Multiple means of engagement and expression
  10. A child who is exceptionally good at solving puzzles likely has high:
    • A) Linguistic intelligence
    • B) Spatial intelligence
    • C) Kinesthetic intelligence
    • D) Musical intelligence
    • Answer: B) Spatial intelligence

Section 4: Motivation and Classroom Management SOTET

  1. Which of the following is an example of extrinsic motivation?
    • A) Studying for personal satisfaction
    • B) Studying to earn a reward
    • C) Studying out of curiosity
    • D) Studying to understand a topic
    • Answer: B) Studying to earn a reward
  2. A teacher uses group activities to encourage teamwork. This is an example of:
    • A) Cooperative learning
    • B) Competitive learning
    • C) Individualized learning
    • D) Rote learning
    • Answer: A) Cooperative learning
  3. The most effective way to manage classroom discipline is to:
    • A) Use strict punishment
    • B) Establish clear rules and routines
    • C) Ignore misbehavior
    • D) Focus only on high achievers
    • Answer: B) Establish clear rules and routines
  4. Which of the following enhances student motivation?
    • A) Constant criticism
    • B) Positive reinforcement
    • C) Ignoring student efforts
    • D) High-pressure testing
    • Answer: B) Positive reinforcement
  5. A teacher notices a student is disengaged. The best approach is to:
    • A) Ignore the student
    • B) Provide engaging, relevant tasks
    • C) Punish the student
    • D) Assign extra homework
    • Answer: B) Provide engaging, relevant tasks
  6. What is the purpose of formative assessment?
    • A) To assign final grades
    • B) To monitor student progress
    • C) To rank students
    • D) To test memory
    • Answer: B) To monitor student progress
  7. Which of the following is a characteristic of a child-centered classroom?
    • A) Teacher-dominated instruction
    • B) Focus on student needs and interests
    • C) Uniform teaching pace
    • D) Strict adherence to textbooks
    • Answer: B) Focus on student needs and interests
  8. The term ‘Self-Regulation’ in learning refers to:
    • A) Following the teacher’s instructions
    • B) Managing one’s own learning process
    • C) Avoiding difficult tasks
    • D) Depending on peers
    • Answer: B) Managing one’s own learning process
  9. Which strategy helps reduce classroom conflicts?
    • A) Favoring certain students
    • B) Encouraging open communication
    • C) Ignoring student concerns
    • D) Using only punishment
    • Answer: B) Encouraging open communication
  10. What is the role of feedback in learning?
    • A) To discourage students
    • B) To provide constructive guidance
    • C) To compare students
    • D) To focus only on mistakes
    • Answer: B) To provide constructive guidance

Section 5: Assessment and Evaluation SOTET

  1. Which of the following is an example of a summative assessment?
    • A) Weekly quiz
    • B) Final examination
    • C) Class discussion
    • D) Homework review
    • Answer: B) Final examination
  2. What is the primary purpose of a diagnostic assessment?
    • A) To identify learning gaps
    • B) To assign grades
    • C) To rank students
    • D) To test memorization
    • Answer: A) To identify learning gaps
  3. Portfolio assessment is used to:
    • A) Test only academic skills
    • B) Showcase a student’s progress over time
    • C) Compare students
    • D) Focus on one-time performance
    • Answer: B) Showcase a student’s progress over time
  4. Which of the following is a characteristic of continuous and comprehensive evaluation (CCE)?
    • A) Focus only on academics
    • B) Assesses cognitive, emotional, and social skills
    • C) Conducted only at year-end
    • D) Ignores student progress
    • Answer: B) Assesses cognitive, emotional, and social skills
  5. A teacher uses rubrics to evaluate student projects. This helps ensure:
    • A) Subjective grading
    • B) Objective and fair assessment
    • C) Random grading
    • D) Favoritism
    • Answer: B) Objective and fair assessment
  6. What is the benefit of peer assessment in the classroom?
    • A) Increases competition
    • B) Encourages collaborative learning
    • C) Reduces teacher workload only
    • D) Focuses on individual performance
    • Answer: B) Encourages collaborative learning
  7. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of assessment?
    • A) To monitor progress
    • B) To provide feedback
    • C) To punish students
    • D) To guide instruction
    • Answer: C) To punish students
  8. A teacher adjusts lessons based on assessment results. This is an example of:
    • A) Summative evaluation
    • B) Formative evaluation
    • C) Standardized testing
    • D) Norm-referenced testing
    • Answer: B) Formative evaluation
  9. Which of the following best supports slow learners?
    • A) Advanced-level tasks
    • B) Remedial teaching
    • C) Ignoring their difficulties
    • D) Competitive tasks
    • Answer: B) Remedial teaching
  10. The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 emphasizes:
    • A) Rote learning
    • B) Holistic and flexible education
    • C) Uniform curriculum
    • D) Teacher-centered learning
    • Answer: B) Holistic and flexible education

50 Expected MCQs for OTET Paper II (English Language Section) SOTET

Section 1: Grammar and Sentence Structure (Questions 1-15)

  1. The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part with an error. If no error, choose ‘No Error’. The skit is prepared by / one of my students, and / it is really funny and enjoyable.
    • A) The skit is prepared by
    • B) one of my students and
    • C) it is really funny and enjoyable
    • D) No Error
    • Answer: D) No Error
  2. Select the word segment that replaces the bracketed part correctly. Divit (used for love playing) football in the corridor.
    • A) used to love playing
    • B) used to love playing
    • C) used to love playing
    • D) No correction required
    • Answer: B) used to love playing
  3. Change to passive voice: The metal beams were corroded by the saltwater.
    • A) The saltwater corroded the metal beams
    • B) The saltwater corroding the metal beams
    • C) The saltwater corrodes the metal beams
    • D) The saltwater corrodes the metal beams
    • Answer: A) The saltwater corroded the metal beams
  4. Fill in the blank: Mom was ____________ at my sister yesterday to ______ her homework.
    • A) screaming, finish
    • B) screamed, finish
    • C) screamed, finishing
    • D) screamed, finished
    • Answer: A) screaming, finish
  5. Fill in the blank: Gunjun ________ the A.C.s off in the auditorium this morning.
    • A) switching
    • B) switch
    • C) switched
    • D) switches
    • Answer: C) switched
  6. The waiter / waited at / my tables.
    • A) The waiter
    • B) waited at
    • C) my tables
    • D) No error
    • Answer: C) my tables
  7. (I had studied all night), I would have aced my tests.
    • A) Would I have studied all night
    • B) Have I studied all night
    • C) Had I studied all night
    • D) Did I study all night
    • Answer: C) Had I studied all night
  8. Change to passive: I will be working on the project.
    • A) The project will be worked on by me
    • B) The project was worked on by me
    • C) The project is going to be worked on by me
    • D) On the project I will be working on
    • Answer: C) The project is going to be worked on by me
  9. Fill in the blank: We did not have ______ slightest idea that he was a thief.
    • A) a
    • B) the
    • C) an
    • D) none
    • Answer: B) the
  10. Fill in the blank: The cat climbed ________ _________ the wall.
    • A) up/on
    • B) upon/over
    • C) up/over
    • D) over/into
    • Answer: A) up/on
  11. Identify the error: She doesn’t like / to play / in the rain.
    • A) She doesn’t like
    • B) to play
    • C) in the rain
    • D) No error
    • Answer: A) She doesn’t like
  12. Direct to indirect speech: He said, “I am going to the market.”
    • A) He said that he was going to the market
    • B) He says that he is going to the market
    • C) He said that I am going to the market
    • D) He said he goes to the market
    • Answer: A) He said that he was going to the market
  13. Choose the correct preposition: The book is _____ the table.
    • A) on
    • B) in
    • C) at
    • D) by
    • Answer: A) on
  14. Spot the error: Neither the students nor the teacher / was present / at the meeting.
    • A) Neither the students nor the teacher
    • B) were present
    • C) at the meeting
    • D) No error
    • Answer: B) were present (Should be ‘was’ for singular subject)
  15. Fill in: He is afraid _____ dogs.
    • A) of
    • B) from
    • C) with
    • D) at
    • Answer: A) of

Section 2: Vocabulary (Synonyms, Antonyms, Spelling, One-Word) (Questions 16-30) SOTET

  1. Synonym of APPREHENSIVE:
    • A) Doubtful
    • B) Arduous
    • C) Upbeat
    • D) Angst
    • Answer: A) Doubtful
  2. Antonym of DISCREET:
    • A) Imprudent
    • B) Delirious
    • C) Inclination
    • D) Anarchy
    • Answer: A) Imprudent
  3. Spelling: Choose the correct one.
    • A) Notorious
    • B) Notorious
    • C) Notereus
    • D) Notorious
    • Answer: D) Notorious
  4. One-word for: Renouncing a belief or doctrine.
    • A) Ascetic
    • B) Abnegation
    • C) Atheist
    • D) Agnostic
    • Answer: B) Abnegation
  5. Idiom: Taste of your own medicine.
    • A) Secret information
    • B) Something you did to others happens to you
    • C) Do something badly
    • D) Active without result
    • Answer: B) Something you did to others happens to you
  6. Synonym of IRRELEVANT:
    • A) Arduous
    • B) Reluctant
    • C) Unrelated
    • D) Unidentified
    • Answer: C) Unrelated
  7. Antonym of RELEASE:
    • A) Relinquish
    • B) Relieve
    • C) Captive
    • D) Rigorous
    • Answer: C) Captive
  8. Spelling: Choose the correct one.
    • A) Auspicious
    • B) Auspitious
    • C) Auspisious
    • D) Auspicious
    • Answer: A) Auspicious
  9. One-word for: Accorded great respect due to age or wisdom.
    • A) Venerable
    • B) Supreme
    • C) Detest
    • D) Demean
    • Answer: A) Venerable
  10. Idiom: Piece of cake.
    • A) Extremely difficult
    • B) Very simple
    • C) Intuition for danger
    • D) Birthday invitation
    • Answer: B) Very simple
  11. Synonym of ELOQUENT:
    • A) Fluent
    • B) Silent
    • C) Dull
    • D) Rough
    • Answer: A) Fluent
  12. Antonym of GENEROUS:
    • A) Stingy
    • B) Kind
    • C) Brave
    • D) Honest
    • Answer: A) Stingy
  13. Spelling: Choose the correct one.
    • A) Receive
    • B) Receive
    • C) Receive
    • D) Receve
    • Answer: B) Receive
  14. One-word for: Fear of heights.
    • A) Claustrophobia
    • B) Acrophobia
    • C) Hydrophobia
    • D) Agoraphobia
    • Answer: B) Acrophobia
  15. Idiom: Break the ice.
    • A) To start a conversation
    • B) To end a fight
    • C) To freeze something
    • D) To cause trouble
    • Answer: A) To start a conversation

Section 3: Comprehension and Pedagogy (Questions 31-50) SOTET

  1. Who was known as ‘the father of early childhood education’?
    • A) B.F. Skinner
    • B) Jean Piaget
    • C) Friedrich Fröbel
    • D) John Dewey
    • Answer: C) Friedrich Fröbel
  2. In pedagogy, what does CLT stand for in English teaching?
    • A) Classical Language Teaching
    • B) Communicative Language Teaching
    • C) Cognitive Learning Theory
    • D) Classroom Language Technique
    • Answer: B) Communicative Language Teaching
  3. Read the passage: “The sun rises in the east.” What is the main idea?
    • A) Direction of sunrise
    • B) Weather description
    • C) Time of day
    • D) Solar system
    • Answer: A) Direction of sunrise
  4. Best method for teaching vocabulary to upper primary students:
    • A) Rote memorization
    • B) Contextual usage in stories
    • C) Dictation only
    • D) Translation
    • Answer: B) Contextual usage in stories
  5. Inference from: “She was overjoyed at the news.”
    • A) Sad
    • B) Angry
    • C) Very happy
    • D) Indifferent
    • Answer: C) Very happy
  6. Role play in class assesses:
    • A) Reading
    • B) Writing
    • C) Listening and speaking
    • D) Personality only
    • Answer: C) Listening and speaking
  7. NEP 2020 emphasizes English:
    • A) Grammar drills
    • B) Multilingualism and competency-based learning
    • C) Monolingual focus
    • D) Exam-oriented
    • Answer: B) Multilingualism and competency-based learning
  8. Comprehension question: Synonym of “brave” in a story about a soldier.
    • A) Coward
    • B) Courageous
    • C) Weak
    • D) Timid
    • Answer: B) Courageous
  9. Teaching grammar through:
    • A) Rules first
    • B) Inductive method (examples then rules)
    • C) Avoidance
    • D) Deductive only
    • Answer: B) Inductive method
  10. Passage inference: “The room was silent.”
    • A) Noisy
    • B) Quiet
    • C) Crowded
    • D) Bright
    • Answer: B) Quiet
  11. The audio-lingual method focuses on:
    • A) Reading
    • B) Oral drills and repetition
    • C) Writing essays
    • D) Literature analysis
    • Answer: B) Oral drills and repetition
  12. For dyslexic students in English class:
    • A) More reading
    • B) Multi-sensory approaches
    • C) Punishment
    • D) Ignore
    • Answer: B) Multi-sensory approaches
  13. Main idea of a poem on nature:
    • A) Beauty of the environment
    • B) Urban life
    • C) Technology
    • D) Sports
    • Answer: A) Beauty of the environment
  14. Task-based language teaching involves:
    • A) Lectures
    • B) Real-life tasks
    • C) Memorization
    • D) Tests only
    • Answer: B) Real-life tasks
  15. Antonym from passage: Opposite of “ancient”.
    • A) Old
    • B) Modern
    • C) Historic
    • D) Traditional
    • Answer: B) Modern
  16. Inclusive pedagogy in English:
    • A) Same for all
    • B) Differentiated instruction
    • C) Exclusion
    • D) Advanced only
    • Answer: B) Differentiated instruction
  17. Comprehension: Cause of “The plant withered due to lack of water.”
    • A) Too much sun
    • B) No water
    • C) Good soil
    • D) Wind
    • Answer: B) No water
  18. Silent reading promotes:
    • A) Speaking
    • B) Comprehension and fluency
    • C) Writing
    • D) Listening
    • Answer: B) Comprehension and fluency
  19. From a story: What happens next? (Predictive question)
    • A) Based on clues
    • B) Random
    • C) Ignore
    • D) Repeat
    • Answer: A) Based on clues
  20. Evaluation in English pedagogy: Formative assessment includes:
    • A) Final exams only
    • B) Ongoing feedback
    • C) Ranking
    • D) Punishment
    • Answer: B) Ongoing feedback

60 Expected MCQs for Special OTET Paper II (Section A: Mathematics & Science) SOTET

Based on deep analysis of previous OTET Paper II question papers (2013-2024), syllabus for upper primary (Classes VI-VIII), and expected patterns for the 2025 Special OTET, these 60 MCQs (30 Mathematics, 30 Science) are compiled from recurring themes. Sources include solved problems from Testbook, Adda247 previous papers, and BSE Odisha patterns. Questions cover content (60%) and pedagogy (40%), with no negative marking.

Section 1: Mathematics (Questions 1-30)

  1. A and B can complete the work in 15 and 20 days, respectively. If they start working together and A leaves after 6 days, in how many days will B complete the remaining work?
    • A) 6 days
    • B) 8 days
    • C) 18 days
    • D) 3 days
    • Answer: A) 6 days
  2. Common factor of (71^73 + 73^73) and (71^71 + 73^71) is:
    • A) 71^73 + 73^73
    • B) 71^71 + 73^71
    • C) 71 + 73
    • D) 71 – 73
    • Answer: C) 71 + 73
  3. Two trains of equal length cross each other in 12 seconds. Speeds: 72 km/hr and 90 km/hr. Length of each train?
    • A) 270 m
    • B) 140 m
    • C) 160 m
    • D) 200 m
    • Answer: A) 270 m
  4. In ΔPQR, S is on PR such that PS = PQ, ∠PQR – ∠PRQ = 30°. ∠SQR = ?
    • A) 22½°
    • B) 20°
    • C) 18½°
    • D) 15°
    • Answer: D) 15°
  5. Shopkeeper marks fan 15% above cost, sells at 10% discount. Profit %?
    • A) 5%
    • B) 4.5%
    • C) 4%
    • D) 3.5%
    • Answer: B) 4.5%
  6. Value of x in 2x + 5 = 15?
    • A) 5
    • B) 10
    • C) 15
    • D) 20
    • Answer: A) 5
  7. Area of rectangle (8 cm length, 5 cm width)?
    • A) 40 cm²
    • B) 13 cm²
    • C) 30 cm²
    • D) 20 cm²
    • Answer: A) 40 cm²
  8. Rule for divisibility by 3?
    • A) Sum of digits divisible by 3
    • B) Last digit even
    • C) Divisible by 2 and 5
    • D) Ends with 0 or 5
    • Answer: A) Sum of digits divisible by 3
  9. Perimeter of a square (side 6 cm)?
    • A) 24 cm
    • B) 36 cm
    • C) 18 cm
    • D) 12 cm
    • Answer: A) 24 cm
  10. Simplify: (3/4 + 1/2) × 2
    • A) 2.25
    • B) 1.5
    • C) 3
    • D) 1
    • Answer: A) 2.25
  11. HCF of 12 and 18?
    • A) 6
    • B) 3
    • C) 2
    • D) 9
    • Answer: A) 6
  12. In a right triangle, if one acute angle is 30°, the hypotenuse is 10 cm, and the opposite side?
    • A) 5 cm
    • B) 5√3 cm
    • C) 10 cm
    • D) 8.66 cm
    • Answer: A) 5 cm
  13. Mean of 2, 4, 6, 8?
    • A) 5
    • B) 4
    • C) 6
    • D) 20
    • Answer: A) 5
  14. Equation of a line parallel to the y-axis, x=3?
    • A) x=3
    • B) y=3
    • C) x+y=3
    • D) y=3x
    • Answer: A) x=3
  15. Volume of a cube (side 4 cm)?
    • A) 64 cm³
    • B) 16 cm³
    • C) 32 cm³
    • D) 24 cm³
    • Answer: A) 64 cm³
  16. Pedagogy: Best method for teaching geometry?
    • A) Lecture
    • B) Hands-on models
    • C) Rote memorization
    • D) Written tests
    • Answer: B) Hands-on models
  17. Number of sides in a decagon?
    • A) 10
    • B) 8
    • C) 12
    • D) 6
    • Answer: A) 10
  18. Solve: 3x – 7 = 14
    • A) 7
    • B) 21/3
    • C) 5
    • D) 4
    • Answer: A) 7
  19. Probability of heads in a coin toss?
    • A) 1/2
    • B) 1
    • C) 0
    • D) 1/4
    • Answer: A) 1/2
  20. Factorize: x² – 9
    • A) (x-3)(x+3)
    • B) (x-9)(x+1)
    • C) x(x-9)
    • D) (x²-3)
    • Answer: A) (x-3)(x+3)
  21. Pedagogy: Use of manipulatives in math class aids:
    • A) Abstract thinking
    • B) Concrete understanding
    • C) Speed
    • D) Competition
    • Answer: B) Concrete understanding
  22. Circumference of circle (radius 7 cm, π=22/7)?
    • A) 44 cm
    • B) 154 cm
    • C) 22 cm
    • D) 49 cm
    • Answer: A) 44 cm
  23. LCM of 4 and 6?
    • A) 12
    • B) 2
    • C) 24
    • D) 10
    • Answer: A) 12
  24. Angle in a semicircle?
    • A) 90°
    • B) 180°
    • C) 45°
    • D) 360°
    • Answer: A) 90°
  25. Percentage: 20% of 50?
    • A) 10
    • B) 5
    • C) 250
    • D) 2.5
    • Answer: A) 10
  26. Pedagogy: Bloom’s Taxonomy, the highest level?
    • A) Knowledge
    • B) Analysis
    • C) Creation
    • D) Application
    • Answer: C) Creation
  27. Simple interest (P=1000, R=5%, T=2 yrs)?
    • A) 100
    • B) 200
    • C) 50
    • D) 150
    • Answer: A) 100
  28. Number of triangles in a quadrilateral?
    • A) 2
    • B) 1
    • C) 4
    • D) 3
    • Answer: A) 2
  29. Median of 1,3,5,7,9?
    • A) 5
    • B) 3
    • C) 7
    • D) 25
    • Answer: A) 5
  30. Pedagogy: Error analysis in math helps in:
    • A) Punishment
    • B) Understanding misconceptions
    • C) Skipping topics
    • D) Grading only
    • Answer: B) Understanding misconceptions

Section 2: Science (Questions 31-60)

  1. Perimeters of squares: 52 cm and 20 cm. Perimeter of the third square with an area equal to the sum?
    • A) 40 cm
    • B) 52 cm
    • C) 20 cm
    • D) 72 cm
    • Answer: A) 40 cm
  2. Nature of light phenomenon: Bending through a prism?
    • A) Reflection
    • B) Dispersion
    • C) Refraction
    • D) Diffraction
    • Answer: C) Refraction
  3. pH of acids?
    • A) >7
    • B) <7
    • C) =7
    • D) 0-14
    • Answer: B) <7
  4. Unit of force?
    • A) Joule
    • B) Newton
    • C) Watt
    • D) Pascal
    • Answer: B) Newton
  5. Photosynthesis equation: CO₂ + H₂O →?
    • A) Glucose + O₂
    • B) Starch + CO₂
    • C) Water + O₂
    • D) Glucose + H₂
    • Answer: A) Glucose + O₂
  6. Pedagogy: CCE in science evaluates:
    • A) Only exams
    • B) All aspects of development
    • C) Grades only
    • D) Theory
    • Answer: B) All aspects of development
  7. Human heart chambers?
    • A) 2
    • B) 3
    • C) 4
    • D) 1
    • Answer: C) 4
  8. Speed of light in vacuum?
    • A) 3×10^8 m/s
    • B) 3×10^6 m/s
    • C) 3×10^10 m/s
    • D) 3×10^4 m/s
    • Answer: A) 3×10^8 m/s
  9. Element symbol for gold?
    • A) Au
    • B) Ag
    • C) Fe
    • D) Cu
    • Answer: A) Au
  10. Respiration type in plants?
    • A) Only aerobic
    • B) Only anaerobic
    • C) Both
    • D) None
    • Answer: C) Both
  11. Pedagogy: Inquiry-based learning in science promotes:
    • A) Rote
    • B) Discovery
    • C) Lecture
    • D) Memorization
    • Answer: B) Discovery
  12. Boiling point of water?
    • A) 100°C
    • B) 0°C
    • C) 212°F
    • D) Both A and C
    • Answer: D) Both A and C
  13. Nucleus discovered by?
    • A) Rutherford
    • B) Bohr
    • C) Dalton
    • D) Thomson
    • Answer: A) Rutherford
  14. Crop for protein: Pulses?
    • A) Yes
    • B) No
    • C) Cereals
    • D) Fruits
    • Answer: A) Yes
  15. Convex lens forms?
    • A) Virtual image
    • B) Real image
    • C) Both
    • D) None
    • Answer: C) Both
  16. Pedagogy: For the visually impaired, use:
    • A) Models
    • B) Videos
    • C) Audio
    • D) Text
    • Answer: C) Audio
  17. Is blood group universal donor?
    • A) O-
    • B) AB+
    • C) A+
    • D) B-
    • Answer: A) O-
  18. Ohm’s law: V=?
    • A) IR
    • B) I/R
    • C) R/I
    • D) I²R
    • Answer: A) IR
  19. Vitamin C deficiency?
    • A) Scurvy
    • B) Rickets
    • C) Beriberi
    • D) Night blindness
    • Answer: A) Scurvy
  20. Earth’s atmosphere layers?
    • A) 5
    • B) 4
    • C) 3
    • D) 6
    • Answer: A) 5
  21. Pedagogy: NEP 2020 for science emphasizes:
    • A) Rote
    • B) Experiential learning
    • C) Exams
    • D) Theory
    • Answer: B) Experiential learning
  22. Magnetism in: Iron?
    • A) Yes
    • B) No
    • C) Wood
    • D) Plastic
    • Answer: A) Yes
  23. Ecosystem: Forest?
    • A) Terrestrial
    • B) Aquatic
    • C) Desert
    • D) Both A and C
    • Answer: D) Both A and C
  24. Chemical change example?
    • A) Melting ice
    • B) Rusting iron
    • C) Cutting paper
    • D) Evaporation
    • Answer: B) Rusting iron
  25. The human digestive system starts at?
    • A) Mouth
    • B) Stomach
    • C) Intestine
    • D) Liver
    • Answer: A) Mouth
  26. Pedagogy: Lab activities assess:
    • A) Theory
    • B) Practical skills
    • C) Memory
    • D) Speed
    • Answer: B) Practical skills
  27. SI unit of energy?
    • A) Joule
    • B) Newton
    • C) Watt
    • D) Ampere
    • Answer: A) Joule
  28. Pollination by wind?
    • A) Anemophily
    • B) Hydrophily
    • C) Entomophily
    • D) Ornithophily
    • Answer: A) Anemophily
  29. A balanced diet includes?
    • A) All nutrients
    • B) Carbs only
    • C) Proteins only
    • D) Fats only
    • Answer: A) All nutrients
  30. Pedagogy: Formative assessment in science:
    • A) End-term
    • B) Ongoing feedback
    • C) Summative
    • D) Ranking
    • Answer: B) Ongoing feedback

60 Expected MCQs for Special OTET Paper II (Section B: Social Studies)SOTET

Based on deep analysis of previous OTET Paper II Social Studies question papers (2013-2024), syllabus for upper primary (Classes VI-VIII), and expected patterns for the 2025 Special OTET, these 60 MCQs (30 History & Political Science, 30 Geography) are compiled from recurring themes. Sources include Adda247 practice sets, Exam2Cracks important questions, and Prepp. In previous papers, the Testbook solved questions. Questions cover content (70%) and pedagogy (30%), aligned with NCERT VI-VIII and Odisha-specific topics.

Section 1: History & Political Science (Questions 1-30)

  1. Who was the founder of the Khilji dynasty?
    • A) Balban
    • B) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
    • C) Jalal-ud-din Khilji
    • D) Iltutmish
    • Answer: C) Jalal-ud-din Khilji
  2. Which battle marked the beginning of British control in India?
    • A) Battle of Plassey
    • B) Battle of Panipat
    • C) Battle of Buxar
    • D) Battle of Haldighati
    • Answer: A) Battle of Plassey
  3. Who was the last ruler of the Lodi dynasty?
    • A) Sikandar Lodi
    • B) Ibrahim Lodi
    • C) Bahlul Lodi
    • D) Alam Shah
    • Answer: B) Ibrahim Lodi
  4. Which Mughal emperor implemented the Din-i-Ilahi religion?
    • A) Babur
    • B) Humayun
    • C) Akbar
    • D) Aurangzeb
    • Answer: C) Akbar
  5. The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by which British official?
    • A) Lord Dalhousie
    • B) Lord Curzon
    • C) Lord Hastings
    • D) Lord Wellesley
    • Answer: A) Lord Dalhousie
  6. Who was known as the ‘Slave of the Slave’?
    • A) Balban
    • B) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
    • C) Iltutmish
    • D) Razia Sultan
    • Answer: C) Iltutmish
  7. What was the primary objective of the East India Company in India?
    • A) Spread Christianity
    • B) Trade and commerce
    • C) Conquer territories
    • D) Build infrastructure
    • Answer: B) Trade and commerce
  8. Who was the prominent ruler during the peak of the Mauryan Empire?
    • A) Chandragupta Maurya
    • B) Ashoka
    • C) Bindusara
    • D) Kharavela
    • Answer: B) Ashoka
  9. Which dynasty was Kharavela associated with?
    • A) Maurya
    • B) Soma
    • C) Surya
    • D) Garganga
    • Answer: C) Surya
  10. Who led the Quit India Movement?
    • A) Mahatma Gandhi
    • B) Jawaharlal Nehru
    • C) Subhas Chandra Bose
    • D) Sardar Patel
    • Answer: A) Mahatma Gandhi
  11. Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to freedom of religion?
    • A) Article 14
    • B) Article 19
    • C) Article 25
    • D) Article 32
    • Answer: C) Article 25
  12. What is the minimum age for becoming the President of India?
    • A) 25 years
    • B) 30 years
    • C) 35 years
    • D) 40 years
    • Answer: C) 35 years
  13. Who is the only lady Chief Election Commissioner of India?
    • A) Indira Gandhi
    • B) Pratibha Patil
    • C) V. S. Ramadevi
    • D) Sucheta Kripalani
    • Answer: C) V. S. Ramadevi
  14. What is the primary role of pressure groups?
    • A) Contest elections
    • B) Influence policy-making
    • C) Implement laws
    • D) Judiciary
    • Answer: B) Influence policy-making
  15. Human Rights Day is celebrated on which date?
    • A) 10th December
    • B) 15th August
    • C) 26th January
    • D) 2nd October
    • Answer: A) 10th December
  16. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages?
    • A) First Schedule
    • B) Seventh Schedule
    • C) Eighth Schedule
    • D) Tenth Schedule
    • Answer: C) Eighth Schedule
  17. Who appoints the Chief Minister of a state in India?
    • A) Prime Minister
    • B) President
    • C) Governor
    • D) Chief Justice
    • Answer: C) Governor
  18. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Rights?
    • A) Part I
    • B) Part III
    • C) Part IV
    • D) Part V
    • Answer: B) Part III
  19. What was the designation of the highest officer of the revenue department during the Mughal period?
    • A) Mir Bakshi
    • B) Sipahsalar
    • C) Wazir
    • D) Muhtasib
    • Answer: C) Wazir
  20. Where is the Buland Darwaza situated?
    • A) Agra
    • B) Fatehpur Sikri
    • C) Ajmer
    • D) Lahore
    • Answer: B) Fatehpur Sikri
  21. During the reign of which Mughal ruler was Cooch Bihar annexed to the Mughal empire?
    • A) Akbar
    • B) Jahangir
    • C) Shah Jahan
    • D) Aurangzeb
    • Answer: D) Aurangzeb
  22. On which date did the First War of Indian Independence begin?
    • A) 14th April 1857
    • B) 10th May 1857
    • C) 16th October 1857
    • D) 5th April 1857
    • Answer: B) 10th May 1857
  23. By which Act of the British Parliament was the Supreme Court of India established?
    • A) Regulating Act, 1773
    • B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
    • C) Indian Council Act, 1892
    • D) Govt of India Act, 1919
    • Answer: A) Regulating Act, 1773
  24. In which script are the inscriptions of Ashoka not written?
    • A) Brahmi
    • B) Kharosthi
    • C) Sanskrit
    • D) Aramaic
    • Answer: C) Sanskrit
  25. Which symbol has not been used in the inscriptions of Kharavela?
    • A) Swastika
    • B) Vriksha
    • C) Chaitya
    • D) Trishul
    • Answer: D) Trishul
  26. Who built the Barabati Fort?
    • A) Yayati Kesari
    • B) Chodagangadeva
    • C) Purushottama Deva
    • D) Mukundadeva
    • Answer: B) Chodagangadeva
  27. Up to which river in the South did Kapilendra Deva spread his empire?
    • A) Godavari
    • B) Krishna
    • C) Kaveri
    • D) Periyar
    • Answer: C) Kaveri
  28. Which Muslim ruler succeeded in his South Indian Campaign?
    • A) Iltutmish
    • B) Alauddin Khilji
    • C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
    • D) Aurangzeb
    • Answer: B) Alauddin Khilji
  29. Who built the Hazar Sittun Royal Palace of Delhi?
    • A) Jalaluddin Khilji
    • B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
    • C) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
    • D) Alauddin Khilji
    • Answer: D) Alauddin Khilji
  30. Where did the black people establish a republic first?
    • A) Tobago
    • B) Trinidad
    • C) Hanoi
    • D) Haiti
    • Answer: D) Haiti

Section 2: Geography (Questions 31-60) SOTET

  1. Which Greek philosopher originally proposed the concept of dividing the Earth into climatic zones based on the distance from the equator?
    • A) Socrates
    • B) Plato
    • C) Parmenides
    • D) Aristotle
    • Answer: C) Parmenides
  2. According to Parmenides and Aristotle, which zone is located closest to the equator and is known for being extremely hot?
    • A) Temperate Zone
    • B) Torrid Zone
    • C) Frigid Zone
    • D) Polar Zone
    • Answer: B) Torrid Zone
  3. What name did Aristotle give to the region that Parmenides thought was too hot for living and is located around the equator?
    • A) Torrid Zone
    • B) Temperate Zone
    • C) Frigid Zone
    • D) Equatorial Zone
    • Answer: A) Torrid Zone
  4. Which climatic zone, according to both Parmenides and Aristotle, is considered to be perpetually frozen and uninhabitable?
    • A) Temperate Zone
    • B) Torrid Zone
    • C) Frigid Zone
    • D) Glacial Zone
    • Answer: C) Frigid Zone
  5. In which zone do both philosophers believe is the only habitable area, lying between the Frigid Zone and the Torrid Zone?
    • A) Equatorial Zone
    • B) Polar Zone
    • C) Tropical Zone
    • D) Temperate Zone
    • Answer: D) Temperate Zone
  6. Which layer of the Earth is composed of solid iron and nickel due to extreme pressure?
    • A) Crust
    • B) Mantle
    • C) Outer Core
    • D) Inner Core
    • Answer: D) Inner Core
  7. The asthenosphere is characterized by which of the following properties?
    • A) It is a rigid and brittle layer
    • B) It is partially molten and ductile
    • C) It is composed primarily of solid iron
    • D) It is located above the lithosphere
    • Answer: B) It is partially molten and ductile
  8. What is the primary source of material for laboratory analysis obtained from volcanic eruptions?
    • A) Basalt
    • B) Granite
    • C) Magma
    • D) Meteorites
    • Answer: C) Magma
  9. The boundary between the Earth’s crust and the upper mantle is known as the:
    • A) Conrad Discontinuity
    • B) Mohorovicic (Moho) Discontinuity
    • C) Gutenberg Discontinuity
    • D) Lehmann Discontinuity
    • Answer: B) Mohorovicic (Moho) Discontinuity
  10. Which layer of the Earth’s interior is responsible for generating the planet’s magnetic field?
    • A) Lithosphere
    • B) Asthenosphere
    • C) Outer Core
    • D) Inner Core
    • Answer: C) Outer Core
  11. The Earth’s mantle extends to a depth of approximately:
    • A) 30 km
    • B) 700 km
    • C) 2,900 km
    • D) 5,150 km
    • Answer: C) 2,900 km
  12. Which of the following layers is in a solid state despite high temperatures due to immense pressure?
    • A) Crust
    • B) Outer Core
    • C) Inner Core
    • D) Asthenosphere
    • Answer: C) Inner Core
  13. The mantle constitutes what percentage of the Earth’s total volume?
    • A) 1%
    • B) 16%
    • C) 31%
    • D) 83%
    • Answer: D) 83%
  14. What type of rocks primarily make up the continental crust?
    • A) Basalt
    • B) Granite
    • C) Iron
    • D) Nickel
    • Answer: B) Granite
  15. The density of the oceanic crust is approximately:
    • A) 2.7 g/cm³
    • B) 3.0 g/cm³
    • C) 5.7 g/cm³
    • D) 7.9 g/cm³
    • Answer: B) 3.0 g/cm³
  16. What is the geosphere?
    • A) The water parts of the planet
    • B) The living components of the Earth
    • C) The gaseous component above the surface of the Earth
    • D) The elements that form the crust and core of the Earth
    • Answer: D) The elements that form the crust and core of the Earth
  17. Which process is part of the rock cycle?
    • A) Photosynthesis
    • B) Erosion and sedimentation
    • C) Evaporation
    • D) Respiration
    • Answer: B) Erosion and sedimentation
  18. The longest river in Odisha is:
    • A) Mahanadi
    • B) Brahmani
    • C) Baitarani
    • D) Subarnarekha
    • Answer: A) Mahanadi
  19. Which plateau is known as the ‘Roof of the World’?
    • A) Deccan Plateau
    • B) Tibetan Plateau
    • C) Chota Nagpur Plateau
    • D) Malwa Plateau
    • Answer: B) Tibetan Plateau
  20. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which state?
    • A) Rajasthan
    • B) Gujarat
    • C) Odisha
    • D) West Bengal
    • Answer: C) Odisha
  21. What is the main cause of soil erosion in Odisha?
    • A) Deforestation
    • B) Overgrazing
    • C) Heavy rainfall
    • D) All of the above
    • Answer: D) All of the above
  22. The largest delta in the world is formed by:
    • A) Ganga-Brahmaputra
    • B) Nile
    • C) Amazon
    • D) Mississippi
    • Answer: A) Ganga-Brahmaputra
  23. Which ocean is to the south of India?
    • A) Atlantic Ocean
    • B) Pacific Ocean
    • C) Indian Ocean
    • D) Arctic Ocean
    • Answer: C) Indian Ocean
  24. The Hirakud Dam is built on which river?
    • A) Godavari
    • B) Mahanadi
    • C) Narmada
    • D) Krishna
    • Answer: B) Mahanadi
  25. What is the capital of Odisha?
    • A) Cuttack
    • B) Bhubaneswar
    • C) Puri
    • D) Rourkela
    • Answer: B) Bhubaneswar
  26. Which is the highest mountain peak in India?
    • A) Kanchenjunga
    • B) Mount Everest
    • C) Nanda Devi
    • D) K2
    • Answer: A) Kanchenjunga
  27. The equatorial region is characterized by:
    • A) Coniferous forests
    • B) Tropical rainforests
    • C) Deserts
    • D) Tundra
    • Answer: B) Tropical rainforests
  28. Which latitude divides India into almost two equal parts?
    • A) Tropic of Cancer
    • B) Equator
    • C) Tropic of Capricorn
    • D) Arctic Circle
    • Answer: A) Tropic of Cancer
  29. The main soil type in Odisha is:
    • A) Alluvial soil
    • B) Black soil
    • C) Red soil
    • D) Laterite soil
    • Answer: D) Laterite soil
  30. What is the primary source of energy for Earth’s climate system?
    • A) Moon
    • B) Sun
    • C) Wind
    • D) Ocean currents
    • Answer: B) Sun

60 Expected MCQs for Special OTET (Child Development & Pedagogy and Language-I Odia) SOTET

Based on deep analysis of previous OTET papers (2019-2024), syllabus for Paper I/II, and expected patterns for the 2025 Special OTET, these 60 MCQs (30 CDP, 30 Odia Language) are compiled from recurring themes. Sources include Testbook, Adda247, and Exam2Cracks patterns. CDP focuses on development theories, learning, and pedagogy; Odia on grammar (sandhi, samasa, karaka), vocabulary, and comprehension. Questions are in English for accessibility, with Odia terms Romanized/transliterated.

Also Read>> NCTE Validation Check: Ensure Your B.Ed., M.Ed., BH. Ed, or D.El.Ed Degree Is Recognized

Section 1: Child Development & Pedagogy (Questions 1-30) SOTET

  1. Which of the following is not a domain of child development?
    • A) Cognitive
    • B) Physical
    • C) Emotional
    • D) Financial
    • Answer: D) Financial
  2. The term “nature vs. nurture” refers to the debate about:
    • A) The role of genetics versus environmental influences on development
    • B) The influence of peers versus family on a child’s development
    • C) The impact of culture versus individual experiences on learning
    • D) The importance of natural abilities versus acquired skills in education
    • Answer: A) The role of genetics versus environmental influences on development
  3. According to Piaget’s theory, which stage occurs during the ages of 7 to 11 years?
    • A) Sensorimotor stage
    • B) Preoperational stage
    • C) Concrete operational stage
    • D) Formal operational stage
    • Answer: C) Concrete operational stage
  4. Which of the following is an example of gross motor skills?
    • A) Drawing a picture
    • B) Tying shoelaces
    • C) Riding a bicycle
    • D) Solving a math problem
    • Answer: C) Riding a bicycle
  5. Which of the following is an example of a fine motor skill?
    • A) Jumping rope
    • B) Throwing a ball
    • C) Playing the piano
    • D) Climbing a tree
    • Answer: C) Playing the piano
  6. A child’s ability to control and regulate their emotions is known as:
    • A) Emotional intelligence
    • B) Cognitive development
    • C) Social competence
    • D) Moral reasoning
    • Answer: A) Emotional intelligence
  7. According to Erik Erikson’s theory, the primary psychosocial crisis during adolescence is:
    • A) Trust vs. mistrust
    • B) Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
    • C) Initiative vs. guilt
    • D) Identity vs. role confusion
    • Answer: D) Identity vs. role confusion
  8. The process of providing support and assistance to help students reach their potential is known as:
    • A) Differentiation
    • B) Accommodation
    • C) Inclusion
    • D) Scaffolding
    • Answer: D) Scaffolding
  9. Which of the following teaching methods focuses on hands-on experiences and active learning?
    • A) Direct instruction
    • B) Experiential learning
    • C) Inquiry-based learning
    • D) Lecture-based learning
    • Answer: B) Experiential learning
  10. According to Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory, learning is facilitated through:
    • A) Independent exploration
    • B) Individual reflection
    • C) Social interaction
    • D) Self-directed study
    • Answer: C) Social interaction
  11. The process of adapting one’s cognitive structures to fit new information is known as:
    • A) Accommodation
    • B) Assimilation
    • C) Equilibration
    • D) Adaptation
    • Answer: A) Accommodation
  12. Which of the following is an example of positive reinforcement?
    • A) Adding extra homework as punishment
    • B) Giving a sticker for completing a task
    • C) Taking away recess as a consequence
    • D) Ignoring unwanted behavior
    • Answer: B) Giving a sticker for completing a task
  13. In the context of classroom management, which of the following is an example of intrinsic motivation?
    • A) Offering rewards for good behavior
    • B) Threatening with punishment for misbehavior
    • C) Encouraging students to set personal goals
    • D) Imposing strict rules and regulations
    • Answer: C) Encouraging students to set personal goals
  14. Which of the following is an example of a formal assessment?
    • A) Observing students during group work
    • B) Conducting a standardized test
    • C) Collecting student portfolios
    • D) Using a rubric to evaluate presentations
    • Answer: B) Conducting a standardized test
  15. The process of identifying and addressing the individual needs of students with diverse learning abilities is called:
    • A) Inclusion
    • B) Differentiation
    • C) Mainstreaming
    • D) Remediation
    • Answer: B) Differentiation
  16. Which of the following theorists is associated with the zone of proximal development?
    • A) Jean Piaget
    • B) Lev Vygotsky
    • C) Erik Erikson
    • D) Lawrence Kohlberg
    • Answer: B) Lev Vygotsky
  17. The concept of multiple intelligences was proposed by:
    • A) Howard Gardner
    • B) Albert Bandura
    • C) B.F. Skinner
    • D) Abraham Maslow
    • Answer: A) Howard Gardner
  18. In the context of social development, which of the following stages is characterized by ‘Intense Self Awareness’?
    • A) Childhood
    • B) Infancy
    • C) Adolescence
    • D) None of these
    • Answer: C) Adolescence
  19. The following are the barriers in inclusive education, EXCEPT:
    • A) Educational policies
    • B) Social discrimination
    • C) Lack of trained teachers
    • D) Lack of physical facilities
    • Answer: A) Educational policies
  20. “A learner learns from his own mistakes.” This statement is based on which learning theory?
    • A) Instrumental conditioning
    • B) Insightful learning
    • C) Trial and error theory
    • D) None of the above
    • Answer: C) Trial and error theory
  21. According to Piaget, what is the average age limit of the child during the concrete operational period of cognitive development?
    • A) 2 to 7 years
    • B) 7 to 12 years
    • C) 12 to 17 years
    • D) 18 years and above
    • Answer: B) 7 to 12 years
  22. Which one comes under activity-based learning?
    • A) Discussion method
    • B) Project method
    • C) Practice method
    • D) Narration method
    • Answer: B) Project method
  23. If the I.Q. of a person is 150 and M.A. 30, then what is the value of C.A.?
    • A) 05
    • B) 15
    • C) 20
    • D) 25
    • Answer: C) 20
  24. Which term is used to express the totality of the learning experiences that the pupil receives through manifold activities in the school?
    • A) Curriculum
    • B) Content
    • C) Lesson plan
    • D) Syllabus
    • Answer: A) Curriculum
  25. “Whose attitude is conservative, his personality is conservative and whose attitude is positive, his personality is also positive.” Who stated it?
    • A) Morton Prince
    • B) Met Feasal
    • C) Eysenck
    • D) Mac Clasky
    • Answer: D) Mac Clasky
  26. Which characteristic is seen among backward learners?
    • A) Ability to analyse
    • B) Objective-based behaviour
    • C) Desire for a vocation of repute
    • D) Inability to express concepts
    • Answer: D) Inability to express concepts
  27. “Learning is a process of progressive reinforcement of behaviour.”- Who stated it?
    • A) Gares
    • B) Kimble
    • C) Cavlin
    • D) Skinner
    • Answer: D) Skinner
  28. What type of question should the teacher ask to identify creative children?
    • A) Activity-based
    • B) Diagnostic
    • C) Convergent thinking-based question
    • D) Divergent thinking-based question
    • Answer: D) Divergent thinking-based question
  29. What is not there in a blueprint?
    • A) Weightage to the objective of teaching
    • B) Weightage to contents
    • C) Weightage to the type of questions
    • D) Weightage to evaluation
    • Answer: D) Weightage to evaluation
  30. Fish moves up and down in water by ______. What type of question is it?
    • A) Objective type
    • B) Recall type
    • C) Completion type
    • D) Recognition type
    • Answer: C) Completion type

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ଭାଷା-I ଓଡ଼ିଆ (ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ 31-60) SOTET

ଓଡ଼ିଆ ଭାଷା ପ୍ରଶ୍ନଗୁଡ଼ିକ ବ୍ୟାକରଣ (ବ୍ୟାକରଣ), ଶବ୍ଦଭଣ୍ଡାର, ବୋଧଗମ୍ୟତା, ଏବଂ ଶିକ୍ଷାଶାସ୍ତ୍ର ଉପରେ କେନ୍ଦ୍ରୀଭୂତ।

  1. ‘ + ‘ର ମିଳନରୁ କେଉଁ ସନ୍ଧି (ସନ୍ଧି) ଗଠିତ ହୁଏ?
  • କ) ଗୁଣ ସନ୍ଧି
  • ଖ) ବୃଦ୍ଧି ସନ୍ଧି
  • ଗ) ଯନ୍ ସନ୍ଧି
  • ଘ) ଦୀର୍ଘ ସନ୍ଧି
  • ଉତ୍ତର: ଘ) Dirgha sandhi (e.g., rāra → rārā)
  1. ଏକ ବାକ୍ୟରେ କର୍ତ୍ତାଙ୍କ ପାଇଁ କେଉଁ କାରକ (କାରକ)?
  • କ) କର୍ମ
  • ଖ) କର୍ତ୍ତା
  • ଗ) କାରଣ
  • ଘ) ସମ୍ପ୍ରଦାନ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: ଖ) Kartru (doer)
  1. ରାଜପୁତ୍ରରେ କେଉଁ ସମାସ (ସମାସ)?
  • କ) ତତ୍ପୁରୁଷ
  • ଖ) ବହୁବ୍ରୀହି
  • ଗ) ଅବ୍ୟୟୀଭାବ
  • ଘ) ଦ୍ୱନ୍ଦ୍ୱ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: କ) Tatpurusha (king’s son)
  1. ଦ୍ୱିତୀୟା ବିଭକ୍ତି (ବିଭକ୍ତି) କେଉଁ କାରକ ପାଇଁ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହୁଏ?
  • କ) ପଞ୍ଚମୀ
  • ଖ) ପ୍ରଥମା
  • ଗ) ଦ୍ୱିତୀୟା
  • ଘ) ଚତୁର୍ଥୀ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: ଗ) Dwitiya (accusative case, object)
  1. ଘରର ବହୁବଚନ ରୂପ କ’ଣ?
  • କ) ଘରଣୀ
  • ଖ) ଘରାଣି
  • ଗ) ଘରେ
  • ଘ) ଘରାଃ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: ଘ) Grihāh
  1. ଅଳ୍ପର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
  • କ) ଅନେକ
  • ଖ) ଅଳ୍ପ
  • ଗ) ସମସ୍ତ
  • ଘ) କିଛି ନାହିଁ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: ଖ) Few
  1. ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ ବାକ୍ୟ ପାଇଁ କେଉଁ ବାକ୍ୟ ପ୍ରକାରଣ (ବାକ୍ୟ ପ୍ରକାରଣ)?
  • କ) ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ ବାକ୍ୟ
  • ଖ) ବିଧି ବାକ୍ୟ
  • ଗ) କର୍ତ୍ତରୀ ବାକ୍ୟ
  • ଘ) ଭାବ ବାକ୍ୟ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: କ) Prashna vakya
  1. ଖୁସିର ସମାନାର୍ଥକ ଶବ୍ଦ କ’ଣ?
  • କ) ଦୁଃଖ
  • ଖ) ଆନନ୍ଦ
  • ଗ) କ୍ରୋଧ
  • ଘ) ଭୟ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: ଖ) Anand (happiness)
  1. ବଡ଼ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କ’ଣ?
  • କ) ଛୋଟ
  • ଖ) ଲମ୍ବ
  • ଗ) ମୋଟ
  • ଘ) ଉଚ୍ଚ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: କ) Chhota (small)
  1. ଓଡ଼ିଆ ଅଳଙ୍କାରରେ ଉପମାକ’ଣ?
  • କ) ଉପମା
  • ଖ) ରୂପକ
  • ଗ) ଅନୁପ୍ରାସ
  • ଘ) ମାନବୀକରଣ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: କ) Simile
  1. ସାରଳା ମହାଭାରତଭଳି ଓଡ଼ିଆ କବିତାରେ କେଉଁ ଛନ୍ଦ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହୁଏ?
  • କ) ପୟାରା
  • ଖ) ସରତା
  • ଗ) ଅନୁଷ୍ଟୁପ
  • ଘ) ତ୍ରିଷ୍ଟୁପ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: କ) Payara
  1. ପୁସ୍ତକର ଲିଙ୍ଗ (ଲିଙ୍ଗ) କ’ଣ?
  • କ) ନପୁଂସକ
  • ଖ) ସ୍ତ୍ରୀଲିଙ୍ଗ
  • ଗ) ପୁଲ୍ଲିଙ୍ଗ
  • ଘ) ଉଭୟ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: କ) Napumsaka (neuter)
  1. ବିସର୍ଗ ସନ୍ଧିର ଉଦାହରଣ କ’ଣ?
  • କ) ରାମଃ + ଏବ → ରାମେବ
  • ଖ) ଦେବ + ଆଳୟ → ଦେବାଳୟ
  • ଗ) ନୀଳ + ଅମ୍ବୁ → ନୀଳାମ୍ବୁ
  • ଘ) ହରି + ଈଶ → ହରୀଶ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: କ) Rāmaḥ + eva → Rāmeva
  1. କର୍ମଣୀ ବାଚ୍ୟ (ପ୍ୟାସିଭ ଭୟସ) ପାଇଁ କେଉଁ ବାଚ୍ୟ ପ୍ରକାରଣ?
  • କ) କର୍ତ୍ତରୀ
  • ଖ) କର୍ମଣୀ
  • ଗ) ଭବେ
  • ଘ) କ୍ରିୟା
  • ଉତ୍ତର: ଖ) Karmani
  1. ଜଳଧିରେ କେଉଁ ସମାସ (ସମାସ)?
  • କ) ସମୁଦ୍ର
  • ଖ) ନଦୀ
  • ଗ) ହ୍ରଦ
  • ଘ) କୂଅ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: କ) Ocean (water-holder, Bahuvrihi)
  1. ଶିକ୍ଷାଶାସ୍ତ୍ର: ପ୍ରାଥମିକ ଛାତ୍ରଙ୍କୁ ଓଡ଼ିଆ ବ୍ୟାକରଣ ଶିଖାଇବାର ସର୍ବୋତ୍ତମ ପଦ୍ଧତି?
  • କ) ବକ୍ତୃତା
  • ଖ) ଉଦାହରଣ ଓ ଗଳ୍ପ
  • ଗ) ମୁଖସ୍ଥ ଶିକ୍ଷା
  • ଘ) କେବଳ ପରୀକ୍ଷା
  • ଉତ୍ତର: ଖ) Examples and stories
  1. ଅନ୍ନ ପୋଷଣମୁହାବରାର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
  • କ) ଖାଦ୍ୟ ବଣ୍ଟନ
  • ଖ) ଜୀବିକା
  • ଗ) ଦାନ
  • ଘ) ଭୋଜି
  • ଉତ୍ତର: ଖ) Livelihood
  1. ଓଡ଼ିଆରେ କେଉଁଟି ସଠିକ ବନାନ: ବିଦ୍ୟାଳୟକିମ୍ବା ବିଦ୍ୟାଳୟ‘?
  • କ) ପ୍ରଥମ
  • ଖ) ଦ୍ୱିତୀୟ
  • ଗ) ଉଭୟ
  • ଘ) କୌଣସିଟି ନୁହେଁ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: ଖ) Second (school)
  1. ବୋଧଗମ୍ୟତା: ଓଡ଼ିଆ ସାହିତ୍ୟଉପରେ ଏକ ଅନୁଚ୍ଛେଦର ମୁଖ୍ୟ ଧାରଣା କ’ଣ?
  • କ) ସାହିତ୍ୟର ଇତିହାସ
  • ଖ) ଆଧୁନିକ ଲେଖକ
  • ଗ) କେବଳ କବିତା
  • ଘ) ନାଟକ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: କ) History of literature
  1. ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର ମୁଖରେ କେଉଁ ଅଳଙ୍କାର?
  • କ) ଉପମା
  • ଖ) ରୂପକ
  • ଗ) ଅନୁପ୍ରାସ
  • ଘ) ୟମକ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: କ) Upama (moon-faced)
  1. ସୂର୍ଯ୍ୟର ଲିଙ୍ଗ କ’ଣ?
  • କ) ପୁଲ୍ଲିଙ୍ଗ
  • ଖ) ସ୍ତ୍ରୀଲିଙ୍ଗ
  • ଗ) ନପୁଂସକ
  • ଘ) ସାଧାରଣ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: କ) Masculine
  1. ଓଡ଼ିଆ ବ୍ୟାକରଣରେ ଆଗମକ’ଣ?
  • କ) ସ୍ୱର
  • ଖ) ବ୍ୟଞ୍ଜନ
  • ଗ) ଯୁକ୍ତାକ୍ଷର
  • ଘ) ବିରାମ ଚିହ୍ନ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: ଗ) Joint letter
  1. ବିଦ୍ୟାର ସମାନାର୍ଥକ ଶବ୍ଦ?
  • କ) ଅଜ୍ଞାନ
  • ଖ) ଜ୍ଞାନ
  • ଗ) ଦୁଃଖ
  • ଘ) ସୁଖ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: ଖ) Gyan (knowledge)
  1. ଦୟାର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ?
  • କ) କରୁଣା
  • ଖ) କ୍ରୂରତା
  • ଗ) ସ୍ନେହ
  • ଘ) ପ୍ରେମ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: ଖ) Krurta (cruelty)
  1. କେଉଁଟି ସଠିକ ବାକ୍ୟ: ମୁଁ ବନ୍ଧୁଙ୍କୁ ଦେଖିଲି‘?
  • କ) ମୁଁ ବନ୍ଧୁଙ୍କୁ ଦେଖିଲି
  • ଖ) ବନ୍ଧୁ ମୋତେ ଦେଖିଲା
  • ଗ) ଆମେ ଦେଖିଲୁ
  • ଘ) ସେମାନେ ଦେଖିଲେ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: କ) I saw the friend
  1. ଶିକ୍ଷାଶାସ୍ତ୍ର: ଓଡ଼ିଆ ଶବ୍ଦଭଣ୍ଡାର ଶିଖାଇବା ପାଇଁ ବ୍ୟବହାର କରନ୍ତୁ:
  • କ) ଫ୍ଲାସକାର୍ଡ
  • ଖ) ପୃଥକୀକରଣ
  • ଗ) କେବଳ ଲେଖା
  • ଘ) ପ୍ରସଙ୍ଗ ଉପେକ୍ଷା
  • ଉତ୍ତର: କ) Flashcards
  1. ରୂପକ ଅଳଙ୍କାରକ’ଣ?
  • କ) ଉପମା
  • ଖ) ରୂପକ
  • ଗ) ପୁନରୁକ୍ତି
  • ଘ) ବିପରୀତ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: ଖ) Metaphor
  1. ଓଡ଼ିଆରେ ଏକର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
  • କ) ଏକ
  • ଖ) ଦୁଇ
  • ଗ) ତିନି
  • ଘ) ଚାରି
  • ଉତ୍ତର: କ) One
  1. ଓଡ଼ିଆରେ ସହିତପାଇଁ କେଉଁ ବିଭକ୍ତି?
  • କ) ସପ୍ତମୀ
  • ଖ) ଷଷ୍ଠୀ
  • ଗ) ଚତୁର୍ଥୀ
  • ଘ) ପ୍ରଥମା
  • ଉତ୍ତର: କ) Saptami (instrumental)
  1. ବୋଧଗମ୍ୟତା: ଓଡ଼ିଆ ପର୍ବଉପରେ ଏକ ଅନୁଚ୍ଛେଦରୁ ଅନୁମାନ କ’ଣ?
  • କ) ସାଂସ୍କୃତିକ ଗୁରୁତ୍ୱ
  • ଖ) ପାଗ
  • ଗ) କେବଳ ଖାଦ୍ୟ
  • ଘ) ଖେଳ
  • ଉତ୍ତର: କ) Cultural importance

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